For those who don't know or don't recall, my seizures are nocturnal. I somewhat understand the now accepted concept that stages 3 and 4 of NREM are where abnormal EEG discharges are most likely to occur, but that it is in the lighter stages of NREM sleep (stages 1 and 2) in which a higher number of seizures occurs. In light of this, however, I cannot piece together the following:
I have had an injury to my right arm for the past 10 days that has made my sleep intermittently restless most nights. The "upside" of the more restless nights has been fewer nocturnal seizures(!) Could this be because restless sleep means not getting into the deeper NREM sleep where the abnormal discharges are most likely to be initiated? Or do restless nights mean more time is spent in REM sleep, which is known to be a suppressor of seizure activity? Or do restless nights in fact mean more time is spent in NREM stages 3 and 4, and that stages 1 and 2 (lighter sleep, where a higher number of seizures is known to occur) are in fact bypassed??
Thanks in advance for any help.
I have had an injury to my right arm for the past 10 days that has made my sleep intermittently restless most nights. The "upside" of the more restless nights has been fewer nocturnal seizures(!) Could this be because restless sleep means not getting into the deeper NREM sleep where the abnormal discharges are most likely to be initiated? Or do restless nights mean more time is spent in REM sleep, which is known to be a suppressor of seizure activity? Or do restless nights in fact mean more time is spent in NREM stages 3 and 4, and that stages 1 and 2 (lighter sleep, where a higher number of seizures is known to occur) are in fact bypassed??
Thanks in advance for any help.