Well, Hallo friends, this is me. I'm here because my lovely daughter had a seizure about a fortnight ago, and like any mum I have been climbing the curtains with worry, trying to find more about it and what's likely to happen next.
After her seizure, which according to a witness seems to have been a full-blown grandmal type, she was kept in hospital overnight, but she has been okay since. The bloods and CT scan came back normal, the EEG showed something unusual - ??spike-waves?? -, and now she has to wait three weeks for an MRI and then back to see the specialist to have it all explained.
There's no epilepsy in the family that I know of, but her gran had long term depressions followed by Parkinson's which I'm told is due to a deterioration in brain chemistry, and I've had hormonal issues: PMT and severe (but luckily short-lived) post-natal illness, that suggest a susceptibility of my brain to chemical imbalance of some sort although not causing seizures. I'm also one of those people who can get light-headed on a single drink, so I don't. Whereas my sister could drink anyone under the table, as she never got hangovers, and consequently wrecked her liver
So, the triggers for this attack seem to have been partying and tiredness, and possibly low blood sugar caused by getting up too late to get breakfast before work (but of course she made time to do her make-up :sigh: ); well hello, she's 20, what else would she be doing?! I don't think it's drug related.... But then, I'm hardly going to be told if it is...
onder:
Thinking back, she has she three or four really bad headahces through the teenage years, some with visual disturbances despite having up to date specs prescriptions, but bad not enough or often enough to get investigated. Now I'm wondering if these might have been migraines or something? It's like we have little pieces that may be from the same jigsaw, or they maybe be totally unrelated.
One thing to add is that, like many children, she has had a febrile convulsion, this was long long ago and only once, as we were told this was common in pre-schoolers but that we should never let an illness push her temperature up so she was always treated promptly with paracetamol. On account of this though, we can't honestly say it's a first seizure, and the guy who did the EEG said it showed some underlying tendency despite the long interval.
So I'm wondering several issues. Are they likely to want her to take medication based on one (unprovoked) seizure and an abnormal EEG? Will they take into account, that at some point in the next ten-fifteen years she might like to start a family, cos I'm worried by what I've heard that some of these drug can do to unborn babies. Or is it more likely to wait and see?
Also, is it bad that I would be happier as a parent to think (based on the abnormal EEG and my and her gran's background) that she may have a lifetime susceptibility, than that it could have been something once-off and possibly (but not likely) drug related? The guilt-trip thing? I'm really confused by it all and hoping someone can shed some light. Thanks
After her seizure, which according to a witness seems to have been a full-blown grandmal type, she was kept in hospital overnight, but she has been okay since. The bloods and CT scan came back normal, the EEG showed something unusual - ??spike-waves?? -, and now she has to wait three weeks for an MRI and then back to see the specialist to have it all explained.
There's no epilepsy in the family that I know of, but her gran had long term depressions followed by Parkinson's which I'm told is due to a deterioration in brain chemistry, and I've had hormonal issues: PMT and severe (but luckily short-lived) post-natal illness, that suggest a susceptibility of my brain to chemical imbalance of some sort although not causing seizures. I'm also one of those people who can get light-headed on a single drink, so I don't. Whereas my sister could drink anyone under the table, as she never got hangovers, and consequently wrecked her liver

So, the triggers for this attack seem to have been partying and tiredness, and possibly low blood sugar caused by getting up too late to get breakfast before work (but of course she made time to do her make-up :sigh: ); well hello, she's 20, what else would she be doing?! I don't think it's drug related.... But then, I'm hardly going to be told if it is...

Thinking back, she has she three or four really bad headahces through the teenage years, some with visual disturbances despite having up to date specs prescriptions, but bad not enough or often enough to get investigated. Now I'm wondering if these might have been migraines or something? It's like we have little pieces that may be from the same jigsaw, or they maybe be totally unrelated.
One thing to add is that, like many children, she has had a febrile convulsion, this was long long ago and only once, as we were told this was common in pre-schoolers but that we should never let an illness push her temperature up so she was always treated promptly with paracetamol. On account of this though, we can't honestly say it's a first seizure, and the guy who did the EEG said it showed some underlying tendency despite the long interval.
So I'm wondering several issues. Are they likely to want her to take medication based on one (unprovoked) seizure and an abnormal EEG? Will they take into account, that at some point in the next ten-fifteen years she might like to start a family, cos I'm worried by what I've heard that some of these drug can do to unborn babies. Or is it more likely to wait and see?
Also, is it bad that I would be happier as a parent to think (based on the abnormal EEG and my and her gran's background) that she may have a lifetime susceptibility, than that it could have been something once-off and possibly (but not likely) drug related? The guilt-trip thing? I'm really confused by it all and hoping someone can shed some light. Thanks
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