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So, I recently was diagnosed after a rather exhaustive procedure with drug-resistant temporal lobe epilepsy. According to my PET scan there was a contrast difference on the scale of 15% between my left and right temporal lobes, over the entire left temporal lobe.
Now, this is commonly referred to as hypometabolism in PET scans. According to a medical book on the topic however there is a debate in the community about whether the hypometabolism of the active temporal lobe/region is due to the occurrence of seizures themselves.[1] That is - the lower metabolism of the flourine solution in the active region is due to that side of the brain essentially getting worn out from seizures. This would seem to indicate to me that it will continue and worsen over time and scares me significantly about what this means for me in the future since I seem to have a weak form of medically intractable epilepsy.
Has anyone ever heard of this interpretation before, or am I misreading it?
[1] Adult Epilepsy, edited by Gregory Cascino & Joseph I. Sirven
Now, this is commonly referred to as hypometabolism in PET scans. According to a medical book on the topic however there is a debate in the community about whether the hypometabolism of the active temporal lobe/region is due to the occurrence of seizures themselves.[1] That is - the lower metabolism of the flourine solution in the active region is due to that side of the brain essentially getting worn out from seizures. This would seem to indicate to me that it will continue and worsen over time and scares me significantly about what this means for me in the future since I seem to have a weak form of medically intractable epilepsy.
Has anyone ever heard of this interpretation before, or am I misreading it?
[1] Adult Epilepsy, edited by Gregory Cascino & Joseph I. Sirven